Gametes of chordates are formed as a result. Postembryonic period of development

Topic: "Reproduction and development of organisms"

1. During the division of a mother cell, two daughter cells are formed with an equal set of chromosomes due to

1) multifunctionality of protein molecules 2) ability of DNA molecules to self-duplicate

3) the pairing of chromosomes in the cell 4) the presence of protein in the chromosomes

2. By what signs can you recognize anaphase of mitosis?

1) random arrangement of spiralized chromosomes in the cytoplasm

2) alignment of chromosomes in the equatorial plane of the cell

3) divergence of daughter chromatids to opposite poles of the cell

4) despiralization of chromosomes and the formation of nuclear membranes around two nuclei

3. Due to the property of the DNA molecule to reproduce its own kind

1) the organism’s adaptation to its environment is formed

2) modifications occur in individuals of the species

3) new combinations of genes appear

4) there is a transfer of hereditary information from the mother cell to the daughter cells

4. The set of chromosomes in human blood cells is equal to

1) 48 2) 46 3) 44 4) 23

5. As a result of meiosis,

1) fern outgrowth 2) zygote in mice

3) gastrula in the human embryo 4) cuckoo flax spore

6. Hereditary information about the characteristics of an organism is concentrated in molecules

1) tRNA 2) DNA 3) proteins 4) polysaccharides

7. Crossing over leads to

1) formation of gametes 2) formation of somatic cells

3) combinative changes 4) chromosomal mutations

8. Every amino acid in a cell is coded for

1) one triplet 2) several triplets

3) one or more triplets 4) one nucleotide

9. During mitosis, chromosomes move to the poles of the cell in

1) anaphase 2) metaphase 3) prophase 4) telophase

10. The essence of meiosis is

1) the formation of cells with a diploid set of chromosomes

2) doubling the amount of DNA in body cells

3) restoration of the full set of chromosomes in cells

4) the formation of gametes with a haploid set of chromosomes

11. In what phase of mitosis are pairs of chromatids attached by their centromeres to the filaments of the spindle?

1) anaphase 2) telophase 3) prophase 4) metaphase

12. tRNA in plant cells

1) stores hereditary information 2) replicates on mRNA

3) ensures DNA replication 4) transfers amino acids to ribosomes

13. The gastrula stage in the embryonic development of the lancelet is characterized by

1) fragmentation of the zygote 2) formation of ectoderm and endoderm

3) laying down of organ systems 4) formation of a single-layer embryo

14. A boy develops from a fertilized egg if, after fertilization, the zygote contains a chromosome set

1) 22 autosomes + Y 2) 22 autosomes + X 3) 44 autosomes + XY 4) 44 autosomes + XX

15. In the fruit fly Drosophila, the somatic cells contain 8 chromosomes, and the germ cells

1) 12 chromosomes 2) 4 chromosomes 3) 8 chromosomes 4) 10 chromosomes

16. During mitotic cell division, the movement of chromosomes to the equatorial plane occurs in

17. Bird sperm are formed as a result of the process

1) meiosis 2) mitosis 3) fertilization 4) zygote division

18.The movement of chromosomes during mitotic cell division is caused by the activity

1) nucleolus 2) nuclear envelope 3) spindle 4) transport RNA molecules

19. A decrease in the number of cell chromosomes occurs in the process

1) meiosis 2) mitosis 3) preparation for division 4) double fertilization

20. Gametes of chordates are formed as a result

1) mitotic cell division 2) division of the zygote

3) double fertilization 4) the process of meiosis

21. Crossing over, or the exchange of sections between homologous chromosomes, occurs in

1) anaphase of mitosis 2) interphase of the cell cycle

3) prophase of the first meiotic division 4) metaphase of the second meiotic division

22. During the process of cell division, the telophase of mitosis is characterized

1) formation of a fission spindle

2) alignment of chromosomes at the equator of the cell

3) divergence of chromosomes to the poles of the cell

4) despiralization of chromosomes

23. The formation of two daughter cells from one cell, which are copies of the mother cell, is carried out as a result of the process

1) mitotic division 2) crossing over

3) chromosome conjugation 4) fertilization

24 Four sex cells with a single set of chromosomes are formed in the process

1) amitosis 2) mitotic division 3) fertilization 4) spermatogenesis

25 .All cells of a mammal’s body have the same set of chromosomes with the exception of

1) neurons 2) red blood cells 3) skin cells 4) eggs

26 .During mitotic cell division, the movement of chromosomes to the equatorial plane occurs in

1) prophase 2) metaphase 3) anaphase 4) telophase

27 . In mitosis, chromosomes become monochromatid during

1) anaphase 2) telophase 3) prophase 4) metaphase

28 .The formation of two daughter cells from one cell, which are copies of the mother cell, is carried out as a result of the process

1) mitotic division 2) crossing over 3) spermatogenesis 4) fertilization

29. The greatest changes during cell division occur in

1) nucleus 2) cytoplasm 3) ribosomes 4) mitochondria

30 . A decrease in the number of cell chromosomes occurs in the process

1) meiosis 2) mitosis 3) preparation for division 4) double fertilization

31 .The longest in life cycle cells is the stage

1) spindle formation 2) nuclear division

3) interphase 4) chromosome spiralization

32 Gametes in humans are formed as a result of

1) mitosis 2) chromosome duplication

3) meiosis 4) somatic cell division

33 .The chromosome sets of men and women differ primarily

1) DNA structure 2) number of chromosomes

3) the shape of one pair of chromosomes 4) the shape of several pairs of chromosomes

34 .If a human egg contains 23 chromosomes, then the number of chromosomes in a skin cell is

1) 23 2) 44 3)46 4)92

35. Human germ cells are formed in

1) scrotum and fallopian tubes 2) prostate gland and vagina

3) vas deferens and in the uterus 4) testes and ovaries

36 .Secondary sexual characteristics are formed under the influence

1) vitamins 2) enzymes 3) hormones 4) antibodies

37 .Female sex hormones are produced

1) in the uterus 2) corpus luteum and follicles

3) mucous membrane of the ovary 4) in the mammary glands

38 .The development of an embryo from a zygote is based on

1) fertilization 2) cell fragmentation 3) formation of gametes 4) meiosis

39 . The connection between the fetus and the mother's body is carried out

1) through the uterus 2) due to the mixing of the blood of the mother and fetus

3) through the placenta and umbilical cord 4) through digestive systems fetus and mother

40 . Normally, a woman's pregnancy lasts approximately

1) 280 days 2) 180 days 3) 320 days 4) 210 days

41. The loss of a section of a chromosome, in contrast to the crossing of chromatids in meiosis, is

1) conjugation 2) mutation 3) replication 4) crossing over

42. The hybrid offspring obtained by G. D. Karpechenko by crossing radishes and cabbage turned out to be infertile due to

1) crossing over between non-homologous chromosomes of radish and cabbage

2) different numbers of germ cells in radish and cabbage

3) homozygosity of parental forms

4) lack of chromosome conjugation in hybrids

Analysis of option No. 1 for 2016 from the collection “Typical test tasks Unified State Exam 2016. Biology”, authors: G.S. Kalinova, T.V. Mazyarkina.

Task No. 1.

What method is used to study the influence of growing conditions? cultivated plants on their productivity?

1. Experiment

2. Chemical analysis

3. Labeled atoms

4. Genealogical

Explanation: conclusions about growing conditions can only be drawn after conducting an experiment at different conditions. The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 2.

What function do ATP molecules perform in a cell?

1. Construction

2. Transport

3. Energy

4. Information

Explanation: ATP is adenosine triphosphate, a universal energy molecule of living organisms. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 3.

What substance molecules serve as a template for tRNA synthesis?

1. Squirrel

2. ATP

3. Amino acids

4. DNA

Explanation: all types of ribonucleic acids (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA) are synthesized from a DNA template. The correct answer is 4.

Task No. 4.

The gametes of chordates are formed as a result of

1. Mitotic division

2. Cleavage of the zygote

3. Double fertilization

4. Meiosis process

Explanation: The sex cells of all living organisms are formed through the process of meiosis. In this case, from one diploid cell four haploid ones are formed. The correct answer is 4.

Task No. 5.

Outer germ layer embryo -

1. The dermis itself

2. Mesoderm

3. Ectoderm

4. Epidermis

Explanation: There are three germ layers: ectoderm (outer layer), mesoderm (intermediate layer), endoderm ( inner layer). The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 6.

Determine the genotypes of the parents if 75% of the hybrid offspring of the first generation of pea plants have red flowers (dominant trait).

1. AA, aa

2. Aa, Aa

3. Aa, aa

4. AA, Aa

Explanation: in the task, a splitting according to the phenotype is 3:1 (by genotype 1:2:1), such splitting is possible only by crossing two heterozygotes, that is, Aa and Aa. The correct answer is 2.

Task No. 7.

Violation of chromosome structure is the cause of variability

1. Phenotypic

2. Mutation

3. Combinative

4. Modification

Explanation: changes in chromosome structure are associated with mutational variability. Such changes can be inherited from generation to generation. The correct answer is 2.

Task No. 8.

The phenomenon of hybrid vigor, manifested in increased productivity and viability of organisms, is called

1. Polyploidy

2. Mutagenesis

3. Heterosis

4. Dominance

Explanation: heterosis is a phenomenon in which interspecific crosses produce heterozygous organisms. These organisms have very strong heterozygous characteristics. That is, in in this case a heterozygote is more pronounced than a homozygote for a dominant trait. For example, they may be more productive and resilient. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 9.

In the cells of which organisms the DNA molecule is closed in a ring?

1. Prokaryote

2. Eukaryote

3. Bacteriophages

4. Viruses

Explanation: Circular DNA is found in prokaryotic cells. Let's look at the picture.

The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 10.

The growth of a woody stem in thickness occurs due to cell division

1. Peels

2. Luba

3. Cambia

4. Cores

Explanation: Tree stems thicken due to the division of cambium cells. For example, centuries-old oak trees are known, reaching 10 m in trunk girth. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 11.

In the process of evolution, a stem with leaves first appears in

1. Bryophytes

2. Lycopods

3. Horsetails

4. Ferns

Explanation: All of the listed groups of plants belong to higher plants and all have stems and leaves, but the first group were bryophytes. The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 12.

Eating poorly washed vegetables can cause infection

1. Roundworms

2. Bull tapeworm

3. Cat fluke

4. Liver fluke

Explanation: Ascaris can be infected through poorly washed vegetables, fruits, berries (that is, with soil particles), bovine tapeworm can be infected by eating poorly fried (or boiled, in general, poorly thermally treated) meat, cat fluke can be infected by eating poorly processed river food. fish, liver fluke can be infected by drinking untreated (unfiltered) water. The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 13.

Air bags as part respiratory system available from

1. Birds

2. Amphibians

3. Mammals

4. Reptiles

Explanation: Air sacs are an adaptation for flight, so they are part of the respiratory system of birds. The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 14.

Blood is a type of tissue

1. Nervous

2. Epithelial

3. Connecting

4. Muscular

Explanation: blood belongs to tissues internal environment, and they, in turn, are one of the types connective tissue. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 15.

The systemic circulation in the human body originates in

1. Left ventricle

2. Left atrium

3. Right atrium

4. Right ventricle

Explanation: Let's look at the structure of the heart.

The systemic circulation begins with the left ventricle, from which the aorta emerges (arterial blood flows through it). The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 16.

In the human body, it causes an increase in heart rate

1. Increased concentration of the hormone adrenaline

2. Excitement reflex arc knee reflex

3. Increased concentration of pepsin in the gastric cavity

4. The work of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

Explanation: Adrenaline is a stress hormone; when it is produced, the heartbeat quickens, the pupil dilates, the feeling of hunger dulls, that is, the body prepares for an attack, for example. The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 17.

Transformation in the human body sound wave V nerve impulse happens in

1. Semicircular canals of the organ of balance

2. The cochlea, located in the pyramid of the temporal bone

3. Cells of the eardrum

4. External auditory canal

Explanation: The transformation of the sound wave occurs in the cochlea, where receptors are located, from which the sensory neuron goes to the brain. The correct answer is 2.

Task No. 18.

The activity of which gland is impaired due to a lack of iodine in food?

1. Liver

2. Saliva

3. Thyroid

4. Pancreas

Explanation: With a lack of iodine, the activity of the pancreas is disrupted, since the hormones of this gland include iodine ions. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 19.

According to the teachings of Charles Darwin, the main driving force evolution organic world think

1. Modification changes of individuals

2. The process of asexual reproduction

3. Artificial selection

4. Natural selection

Explanation: such a main driving force is natural selection, since as a result of natural selection the fittest organism survives, that is, positive changes occur in the genotype. The correct answer is 4.

Task No. 20.

The formation of fitness in organisms is referred to as

2. Evidence of evolution

3. The results of evolution

4. The driving forces of evolution

Explanation: fitness is the most important result of evolution. This result is achieved using driving forces evolution: heredity, variability, natural selection and the struggle for existence. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 21.

What evidence of evolution should include the similarity of human embryos and vertebrate animals?

1. Biogeographical

2. Biochemical

3. Embryological

4. Comparative anatomical

Explanation: The structure and development of animal and human embryos is studied by embryology, which means that the study of the similarities of embryos belongs to embryological evidence. The correct answer is 3.

Task No. 22.

The humidity of the environment, necessary for the life of organisms, is a factor

1. Biological

2. Abiotic

3. Anthropogenic

4. Non-periodic

Explanation: environmental humidity refers to factors in the non-living environment; such factors are called abiotic. The correct answer is 2.

Task No. 23.

The peculiarity of rice plantation as an agroecosystem is

1. Her instability

2. Large number species

3. Long chains nutrition

4. Closed cycle of substances

Explanation: A feature of an artificial ecosystem is its instability (from the above, and also short food chains, small quantity species and open cycle of substances). The correct answer is 1.

Task No. 24.

The primary source of energy for the cycle of substances in the biosphere is

1. Activities of living organisms

2. Chemical energy

3. Thermal energy

4. Solar energy

Explanation: The primary source of energy is the energy of the sun. Here are two pieces of evidence:

1. The first organisms were phototrophs that processed the energy of the Sun into the energy of chemical bonds

2. The first link of any food chain is autotrophs (often phototrophs), which create organic substances from minerals using solar energy. The correct answer is 4.

Task No. 25.

Are the following judgments about the criteria of a species correct?

A. The genetic criterion of a species is characterized by the same reaction of individuals of the species to the influence of environmental factors.

B. In accordance with the genetic criterion, all individuals of the species have the same chemical composition and similar life processes.

1. Only A is correct

2. Only B is correct

3. Both judgments are correct

4. Both judgments are wrong.

Explanation: the genetic criterion describes the genotype of the species, and the second statement describes the physiological criterion of the species. The correct answer is 4.

Task No. 26.

Not typical for a prokaryotic organism

1. Binary fission

2. Presence of metabolism

3. Division by mitosis

4. Presence of ribosomes

5. Multicellular structure

6. Presence of membrane organelles

Explanation: A prokaryotic organism is characterized by the presence of ribosomes, the presence of metabolism and binary fission. Everything else is not typical. The correct answer is 3, 5, 6.

Task No. 27.

Unicellular animals, unlike bacteria,

1. Carry out the process of chemosynthesis

2. Play the role of consumers in the ecosystem

3. Serve as a source of a number of diseases

6. They belong to prenuclear organisms (prokaryotes)

Explanation: some bacteria are chemosynthetics, protozoa are heterotrophs. Bacteria can be producers, consumers and decomposers; protozoa can be consumers. They serve as a source of a number of diseases - both. Mitochondria, as well as a formed nucleus, are found only in the simplest. Prokaryotes include bacteria. The correct answer is 2, 4, 5.

Task No. 28.

Why is a potato field considered an unstable ecosystem?

1. Potato culture predominates

2. Closed cycle of substances

3. Solar energy does not participate in the cycle of substances

4. Short power circuits

5. Large numbers species other than potatoes

6. Large biomass is removed from the cycle of substances with the harvest

Explanation: potato field - artificial ecosystem, it is unstable, since it has short food chains, a small number of species (monocultures predominate) and an open cycle of substances, and when the crop is littered, the entire biomass of the monoculture is dug up. The correct answer is 1, 4, 6.

Task No. 29.

Establish a correspondence between the process occurring in the cell and the organelle in which it occurs.

Organoid Process

A. Recovery carbon dioxide to glucose 1. Mitochondria

B. ATP synthesis during respiration 2. Chloroplast

B. Primary synthesis of organic substances

D. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

D. Breakdown of organic substances to carbon dioxide and water

Explanation: Glucose is broken down in the mitochondria and synthesized in the chloroplast. ATP synthesis occurs in mitochondria, as does the breakdown of organic substances into carbon dioxide and water. In chloroplasts - the synthesis of organic substances, the conversion of light energy into chemical energy. The correct answer is 21221.

Task No. 30.

Establish a correspondence between the animal trait and the classes Insects and Crustaceans.

Feature Class

A. Respiratory organs - trachea 1. Insects

B. Three pairs of limbs 2. Crustaceans

B. Five pairs of walking legs

G. Respiratory organs - gills

D. Hard chitinous shell

E. Excretory system - Malpighian vessels

Explanation: Let's look at class representatives.

Signs of insects - respiratory organs - trachea, three pairs of limbs, excretory system- Malpighian vessels. Signs of crustaceans are five pairs of walking legs, respiratory organs - gills, a hard chitinous shell. The correct answer is 112221.

Task No. 31.

Establish a correspondence between the characteristics of the gland and the species to which it belongs.

Characteristics of the gland Type of gland

A. Releases secretion directly into the blood 1. Internal secretion

B. Synthesizes proteins - enzymes 2. External secretion

B. Secretes secretions through special ducts

G. Forms biologically active substances- hormones

Explanation: glands internal secretion secrete hormones into the blood, that is, signs of endocrine glands: the secretion is released into the blood, forming biologically active substances - hormones. Everything else goes to the exocrine glands. The correct answer is 1221.

Task No. 32.

Establish a correspondence between the characteristic of a large pond snail and the criterion of the species for which it is characteristic.

Sign of the large pond snail Species criterion

A. Sense organs - one pair of tentacles 1. Morphological

B. Brown shell color 2. Environmental

B. Inhabits fresh water bodies

D. Feeds on soft plant tissues

D. Shell spirally twisted

Explanation: the morphological criterion describes the structure of the species, that is: sensory organs - one pair of tentacles, brown shells, spirally twisted shell. The ecological criterion describes the lifestyle of the species: it inhabits fresh water bodies and feeds on the soft tissues of plants. The correct answer is 11221.

Task No. 33.

Establish the sequence of processes occurring during the reproduction and development of flowering plants, starting from the moment of pollen formation.

1. Penetration of sperm into the embryo sac

2. Formation of a triploid cell

3. Pollen tube germination

4. Formation of a seed from an ovule

5. Formation of generative and vegetative cells

Explanation: Let's arrange the processes in the correct order. It all starts with the formation of generative and vegetative cells, then the pollen tube grows, then the sperm penetrates the embryo sac, the sex cells fuse, a triploid cell is formed and, finally, the seed is formed from the ovule. The correct answer is 53124.

Task No. 34.

Justify planetary significance photosynthesis, which first arose in the most ancient prokaryotes - cyanobacteria.

Explanation: The first real living organisms to appear on the planet are cyanobacteria and it so happens that they have oxygenic photosynthesis, that is, during photosynthesis oxygen is released as a by-product. The evolution of photosynthetic organisms began with cyanobacteria, that is, algae arose, then higher plants. Such a large biomass of plants photosynthesized a certain amount of oxygen for the planet. Therefore, we and most living organisms breathe oxygen.

Task No. 35.

Name the bones indicated in the figure by numbers 2 and 3. Indicate which parts of the skeleton they belong to. What type of bones are these?

Explanation: The figure shows the skeleton of the free upper limb and the scapula, which fits into the girdle of the upper limbs. 2 - humerus, 3 - scapula. The humerus is a tubular bone, and the scapula is a flat bone.

Task No. 36.

Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which errors were made and correct them.

1. K organic matter cells contain proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acids. 2. Proteins are polymers whose monomers are nucleotides. 3. Change in structure and loss of protein natural properties- reduplication. 4. Glucose, sucrose, ribose are classified as monosaccharides. 5. Phospholipids form a bilipid layer in the membrane.

Explanation: 2 - the monomers of proteins are not nucleotides, but amino acids. 3 - this process is not called reduplication, but protein denaturation. 4 - glucose and ribose are classified as monosaccharides, and sucrose is a disaccharide (consists of glucose and fructose).

Task No. 37.

What are the similarities between mushrooms and animals?

Explanation: 1. Both fungi and animals are heterotrophs (they consume ready-made organic substances).

2. The cell wall of fungi and the exoskeleton of arthropods contain chitin.

3. Both fungi and animals are eukaryotes, that is, they have membrane organelles, including a formed nucleus.

4. They do not have chloroplasts and, in general, plastids.

Task No. 38.

They took several cuttings from one currant bush, rooted them and grew adult plants. However, it turned out that the daughter plants had not only similarities with each other and with the mother plant, but also differences: in the number and power of shoots, size and number of leaves. Explain this phenomenon. What method of reproduction was used in this case?

Explanation: Vegetative propagation was used, namely propagation by plant parts (in this case, cuttings). Since during vegetative propagation the genotypes of the daughter plants and the mother plant are identical, the changes cannot be associated with the genotype. It turns out that these were modifications, that is, the consequences of modification variability. It may well be that the plants received more light, were watered more and the mineral nutrition was richer. As a result, they grew larger. (modification variability only works within the reaction norm)

Task No. 39.

What chromosome set is characteristic of the embryonic and endosperm cells of the seed and barley leaves? Explain the result in each case.

Explanation: plant leaves consist of somatic cells in which the set of chromosomes is diploid. The embryo develops from a zygote, the zygote is obtained by the fusion of haploid germ cells, which means the embryo is diploid (n + n = 2n). The endosperm of the seed is triploid, as it is formed by the fusion of a binucleate ovule and a haploid sperm (2n + n = 3n).

Task No. 40.

When crossing a Drosophila fly that has a gray body (A) and normal wings (B), with a fly that has black body and curled wings, 58 flies with a gray body and normal wings were obtained, 52 flies with a black body and curled wings, 15 with a gray body and curled wings, 14 with a black body and normal wings. Make a diagram for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parents and offspring. Explain the formation of four phenotypic classes. What law applies in this case?

Explanation: A - gray body

a - black body

B - normal wings

c - curled wings

Crossing: P: AaBv x aavv

G: AB, AB, AB, AB x AB

F1: AaBv - gray body, normal wings - 58

aavv - black body, curled wings - 52

Aavv - gray body, curled wings - 15

aaВв - black body, normal wings - 14

Genes A and B and a and b are linked, so they form groups of 58 and 52 individuals, and in the case of the other two groups, crossing over occurred and these genes ceased to be linked, which is why they formed 14 and 15 individuals.

For each cell type (zygote, gamete), select the appropriate characteristics: 1 – has a haploid set of chromosomes; 2 – formed as a result of meiosis;

3 – contains the hereditary material of two individuals; 4 – has diploid set chromosomes; 5 – reproductive cell; 6 – the number of chromosomes and DNA molecules is described by the formula nc; 7 – formed as a result of fertilization; 8 – contains hereditary material from one individual; 9 – the number of chromosomes and DNA molecules is described by the formula 2n2c; 10 – fertilized egg.

1. With asexual reproduction, daughter individuals develop from: a) one unspecialized cell; b) one specialized cell; c) sets

cells of the same origin; d) many cells of various origins. 2. During sexual reproduction, daughter individuals develop from: a) one unspecialized cell; b) two specialized cells; c) fused unspecialized cells; d) fused specialized cells. 3. Cell division reproduces: a) only bacteria; b) only unicellular algae and bacteria; c) only protozoa and bacteria; d) unicellular algae, protozoa, bacteria and cells multicellular organisms. 4. Indirect cell division (mitosis) is characteristic mainly of: a) prokaryotes; b) prokaryotes and some eukaryotes; c) all eukaryotes, with the exception of protozoan cells and specialized animal cells; d) all eukaryotes, with the exception of plant cells and specialized animal cells 5. Reductive cell division (meiosis) is characteristic mainly of: a) prokaryotes and protozoa; b) protozoa and plant cells that form spores and gametes; c) plant cells that ensure their growth, and animal cells that form gametes; d) plant and fungal cells that form spores and gametes, animal cells that form gametes.

A.1. Gametes are specialized cells with the help of which 1) sexual reproduction 3) vegetative reproduction 2) seed germination 4)

height vegetative organs

A.2. What human disease is the result gene mutation? 1) influenza 2) malaria 3) sickle cell anemia 4) dysentery

A.3. Individuals that form gametes of different varieties, in the offspring of which splitting occurs, are called 1) allelic 2) heterozygous 3) non-allelic 4) homozygous

A.4. IN somatic cells healthy person there are 1) 32 chromosomes 2) 46 chromosomes 3) 21 chromosomes 4) 23 chromosomes

A.5. Two genes are inherited linked if they are located on 1) homologous chromosomes 3) non-homologous chromosomes 2) sex chromosomes 4) one chromosome

A.6. To determine the genotype of an individual, a crossing is carried out: 1) dihybrid 2) analyzing 3) intermediate 4) polyhybrid

A.7. A phenotypic ratio of 3:1 corresponds to 1) Morgan's law 3) the law of segregation 2) sex-linked inheritance 4) the law of uniformity

A.8. Down syndrome is caused by 1) monosomy 21 chromosome 3) trisomy X chromosome 2) trisomy 21 chromosome 4) monosomy X chromosome

A.9. Due to conjugation and crossing over, during the formation of gametes, 1) the number of chromosomes is halved \ 2) the number of chromosomes is doubled 3) exchange genetic information between homologous chromosomes 4) increase in the number of gametes

A.10. When crossing rabbits with genotypes AAbb and aaBB, offspring with genotype 1) AaBB 2) AAVb 3) AABB 4) AaBB will be obtained

A.11. When crossing two long-haired guinea pigs, 25% of the short-haired individuals were obtained. This means that the parental individuals were 1) homozygous for a dominant gene 2) homozygous for a recessive gene 3) one individual was homozygous for a dominant gene, and the other heterozygous 4) heterozygous

A.12. The chromosome set of a female reproductive cell contains 1) two XX chromosomes 3) 46 chromosomes and two XX chromosomes 2) 22 autosomes and one X chromosome 4) 23 autosomes and one X chromosome

A.13. When crossing a black guinea pig (Aa) with a black male (Aa) in the F1 generation, the result will be 1) 50% white and 50% black individuals 3) 75% white and 25% black individuals 2) 25% white and 75% black individuals 4) 100% - black individuals

A.14. In humans, heterogametic sex is 1) male 3) and male and female 2) in some cases - male, in others - female 4) female

A.15. What is the probability of having children with freckles in a married couple if the woman’s genotype is Aa and the man’s is aa (A is the presence of freckles)? 1) 100% 2) 50% 3) 25% 4) 75%

A.16. How many types of gametes can be formed as a result of normal gametogenesis in an individual with the genotype AABb 1) one 2) three 3) two 4) four

A.17. Determine the genotype of the parent pea plants if, when crossed, 50% of pea plants have yellow and 50% have green seeds 1) Aa x Aa 2) AA x AA 3) AA x aa 4) Aa x aa

A.18. What is the probability of having a brown-eyed child from a blue-eyed mother and heterozygous this characteristic brown-eyed father? 1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 100% 4) 75%

A.19. The predominant gene designated capital letter, called 1) recessive 2) allelic 3) dominant 4) non-allelic

A.20. Paired genes located on homologous chromosomes and determining the color of pea flowers are called 1) linked 2) dominant 3) recessive 4) allelic

B.1. Insert the missing terms from the proposed list into the text “Heredity”, using numerical notations. Write down the resulting sequence of numbers in the table. Heredity is the ability of organisms to transmit characteristics to offspring from generation to generation during reproduction. elementary unit hereditary material is ___________(A). Its basis is ___________(B). The totality of all the hereditary material of an organism is ________(B), and the totality of its external and internal characteristics form it ___________(D).



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